Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 10:39

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Bitcoin update: From 80 bytes to 4MB – How BTC’s brain can get bigger - AMBCrypto
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Bryce Huff thankful he landed with 49ers - NBC Sports
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why do some people have loving parents and some do not?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.